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[330] For ὑπὲρ Δία the unanimous tradition has “ὑπερδέα”, but with very different explanations. (1) Eust. “τὸν ἀπτόητον καὶ ὑπερκείμενον δέους”, having a host superior to fear. This entirely spoils the force of Apollo's appeal to the Trojan chiefs. (2) Apoll. “ λεχ. ὑπερδεόντως ἐνδεῆ, οἷον ἐλάσσονα κατὰ δύναμιν”. This gives a better sense, but “ὑπερδεής” = excessively deficient is not at all in the Epic style; “ἐνδεῆ” is all that the context requires. (3) The same objection may be made to Döderlein's excessively timid, even if that sense could have been got out of the word. As for the hyphaeresis by which “ὑπερδέα” = “ὑπερδεέα”, it may be defended by “νηλέα19.229, “θεουδέα”, and the compounds of “κλέος”, H. G. § 105. 4, though these are extremely doubtful. But apart from this the three interpretations given are all virtually impossible. The passage is however cleared up by the really ‘palmary’ conjecture of Dr. BrocksE., ὑπὲρ Δία. We thus get at once the required parallel to “ὑπὲρ θεόν” (327) and the antithesis to “ἡμῖν δὲ Ζεύς” (331). We no longer have to supply “εἰρυομένους” after “ἴδον”, but the sentence runs smoothly to the end. δ̂ημον is perhaps to be taken in a local sense (see 2.547), holding their realm; for the pregnant sense of “ἔχειν” see 5.473φῆς που ἄτερ λαῶν πόλιν ἑξέμεν ἠδ᾽ ἐπικούρων”, a precisely similar passage; though on the analogy of 24.730 q.v. (“πόλιν”) “αὐτὴν ῥύσκευ, ἔχες δ᾽ ἀλόχους καὶ νήπια τέκνα, δῆμος” might have its common personal sense. The only question is how so plain and simple a reading could have suffered a corruption which introduces nothing but confusion and difficulty. The explanation probably is that the phrase “ὑπὲρ Δία” seemed impious, especially in the mouth of a god, when used of an event which he had actually seen. Such an “ἀπρεπές” would weigh more heavily with a critic than with a poet; indeed it is likely enough that a poet would put into the mouth of a god a phrase which he would not use himself; such irreverence at second hand is characteristic enough.

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