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[127] Zenod. appears to have read “ὅς ποτε μειρόμενος μεγάλ᾽ ἔστενε”, taking “μειρόμενος” as ‘being parted from his son.’ But, as Didymos points out, such a sense of “μείρεσθαι” is not Homeric (cf. 9.616). The reading, if admissible, would have the advantage of avoiding the awkward repetition of “εἰρόμενος .. ἐρέων”, but would lose the essential contrast between “οἰμώξειε” and “ἐγήθεε”.

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